A 50-year-old man has a 3-year history of hypertension. He complains of fatigue

Question

A 50-year-old man has a 3-year history of hypertension. He complains of fatigue and occasional muscle cramps. The patient has not had any other significant medical problems in the past, and there is no family history of hypertension. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 168/104 mm hg, and additional laboratory tests reveal that the patient has primary hyperaldosteronism. Which of the following sets of findings would be expected in this man with elevated levels of aldosterone due to abnormally increased synthesis from the adrenal cortex? Circle the single best answer (ForA through H)

Explanation / Answer

Hyperaldosteronism: It is a disorder where too much release of aldosterone by adrenal cortex will be produced in the blood.Hyperaldosteronism can be 1o or 2o

Primary hyperaldosteronism is caused due to problem of the adrenal glands themselves, where it causes them to release more aldosterone.

secondary hyperaldosteronism, a problem causes some were in the body which causes the adrenal glands to release too much aldosterone. The problems can be with diet, gene or a medical disorder such as with the heart, liver, kidneys, or high BP.

hyperaldosteronism state, an increased aldosterone causes an inappropriate salt re-absorption, where increases in the extracellular fluid volume until the kidneys can respond appropriately.

in standard medical therapy hyperaldosteronism is unresponsive used to prevent or reduce high blood pressure. causes hypokalemia and also 2o hyperaldosteronism is related to decreased CO(cardiac output), it associated with elevated renin levels. so based on this the above answer was H

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