Suppose Alcatel-Lucent has an equity cost of capital of 9.1%, market capitalizat
ID: 2794702 • Letter: S
Question
Suppose Alcatel-Lucent has an equity cost of capital of 9.1%, market capitalization of $10.95 billion, and an enterprise value of $15 billion. Suppose Alcatel-Lucent's debt cost of capital is 5.6% and its marginal tax rate is 34%.
a. What is Alcatel-Lucent's WACC? 7.64%
b. If Alcatel-Lucent maintains a constant debt-equity ratio, what is the value of a project with average risk and the expected free cash flows as shown here,
Year 0 =-100 (FCF $ Million) Year 1= 52 (FCF $ Million) Year 3= 103 (FCF $ Million) Year 1= 66 (FCF $ Million)? The NPV of the project is $90.13 million
c.If Alcatel-Lucent maintains its debt-equity ratio, what is the debt capacity of the project in part
(b) is as follows: (Round to two decimal places)
Year 0 = Debt capacity $ ? million, Year 1 = Debt capacity $ ? million, Year 2 = Debt capacity $ ? million, Year 3 = Debt capacity $ ? million,
Explanation / Answer
a. WACC= Cost of equityX Wtg of equity+(1-tax rate)Xcost of debt Xwtg of debt
=(9.1%X(10.95/15))+((1-0.34)X5.6%X((15-10.95)/15)=7.64%
b. Value of project= NPV
NPV= Present value of all future cash flows discounted at WACC(Wtd Avg Cost of Capital).
In this case WACC=7.64%
NPV= -100 +(52)/(1+7.64%)+(66)/(1+7.64%)^2+(103)/(1+7.64%)^3
NPV=90.13 million
Debt capcity= Cash flows/Debt cost
Debt cost= interest rate on debtX(1-tax rate)Xamount borrowed
Debt cost each year= 5.6%X(1-0.34)X(15-10.95)
Debt cost each year= 149.68 million
Debt servicing capacity year 1= 52/149.68= 0.34
year 2= 66/149.68= 0.44
Year 3= 103/149.68= 0.688
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