Q1. A(n) _______________ is an artificial person, or legal entity, created under
ID: 445857 • Letter: Q
Question
Q1. A(n) _______________ is an artificial person, or legal entity, created under state law.
a. corporation
b. limited partnership
c. legal partnership
d. sole proprietorship
e. business
Q2. Under traditional common law rules, if you wanted to sue a partnership you had to:
a. sue each partner individually
b. sue the partnership as a group
c. sue the state on behalf of the partnership
d. have the state sue the partnership
e. wait until the partnership was incorporated to sue
Q3. A certification of incorporation from the government:
a. gives a business monopoly privileges
b. is necessary for a corporation to be recognized legally
c. must be obtained by all limited partnerships
d. is necessary or a corporation to be recognized legally and must be obtained by all limited partnerships
Q4. State regulation of franchises is typically conducted by:
a. a state attorney general
b. county prosecutors
c. state chartering offices
d. state examining boards
e. state FTCs
Q5. The New York Stock Exchange is an example of a stock exchange where:
a. the stock of sole proprietorships can be traded
b. the stock of public corporations can be traded
c. the stock of private corporations can be traded
d. the stock of public corporations cannot be traded
e. the stock of public corporations can be sold but not bought
Q6. Double taxation on profits is:
a. a disadvantage to the corporate form of organization
b. an advantage to the corporate form of organization
c. an incentive for governments to lower sales taxes for corporations
d. a driving force behind the trend of businesses moving overseas
e. a clever economic strategy
Q7. When a court holds shareholders personally liable for corporate debts it is said to be:
a. piercing the corporate veil
b. opening the corporate veil
c. closing the corporate veil
d. tearing the corporate veil
e. cutting the corporate veil
Q8. A potential drawback of sole proprietorships and partnerships is that the parties involved have:
a. limited financial liability
b. only corporate liability
c. unlimited liability
d. partial protection from creditors for business debts
e. only corporate liability and partial protection from creditors for business debts
Q9. The rules that regulate and govern the internal operations of a corporation are known as:
a. the certificate of incorporation
b. the bond
c. the bylaws
d. statutes of business
e. the corporate constitution
Q10. Featherbedding, the illegal use of union funds for the personal benefit of union leaders, is outlawed by the Landrum-Griffin Act.
a. true
b. false
Q11. Before the Norris-La Guardia Act, federal courts:
a. could not interfere in labor-management relations
b. showed no interest in labor-management relations
c. could issue injunctions to stop labor strikes
d. refused to interfere in labor-management disputes due to the Interstate Commerce Clause
Q12. An anti-raiding covenant is one in which:
a. one party promises not to sue another in case of an injury caused by a tort or some other event
b. an employee agrees not to leave and go into competition against the employer or go to work for a competitor for a certain time
c. an employee agrees not to recruit fellow employees for another company when they leave their current place of employment
d. an employee agrees not to use illegal substances
Q13. The powers of the National Labor Relations Board include:
a. monitoring of unfair labor practices
b. representing the NLRB in court
c. determining if employees want to be represented by a union
d. monitoring of unfair labor practices and determining if employees want to be represented by a union
e. monitoring of unfair labor practices and determining if employees want to be represented by a union and representing the NLRB in court
Q14. Violations of OSHA regulations are civil, there are no criminal penalties.
a. true
b. false
Q15. The Family and Medical Leave Act applies to all:
a. private employers of 50 or more persons
b. employees after 30 days of employment
c. government units
d. private employers of 50 or more persons and government units
e. private employers of 50 or more persons and government units and employees after 30 days of employment
Q16. A public policy exception to employment at-will gives the employee the right to sue for wrongful discharge.
a. true
b. false
Q17. Lockouts are legal as long as:
a. there is no evidence of bad intent
b. there is evidence of non-violent attempts to break a union
c. there is physical force involved
d. there is not any physical force involved
Q18. Forcing retirement because of age is an example of:
a. sex discrimination
b. age discrimination
c. elderly discrimination
d. geriatric discrimination
e. quantitative discrimination
Q19. If an employer uses a decision rule that causes discrimination in some aspect of employment based on protected class status, but the discrimination was unintentional, the discrimination is called:
a. disparate treatment, but is legal so long as not intentional
b. disparate treatment, which is illegal
c. disparate impact, but is legal so long as not intentional
d. disparate impact, which is illegal
e. differential impact, but is legal so long as not intentional
Q20. An employer may legally provide differential treatment to its employees based on:
a. merit
b. seniority
c. business necessity
d. merit or seniority only
e. merit, seniority or business necessity
Q21. Which of the following are examples of illegal discrimination under the Pregnancy Discrimination Act?
a. not providing health insurance to employees
b. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café
c. denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition
d. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café and denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition
e. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café and denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition and not providing health insurance to employees
Q22. The Equal Pay Act allows differences in wages between men and women employees if the differences are due to:
a. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced
b. a merit system
c. a seniority system
d. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced or a merit system
e. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced or a merit system or a seniority system
Q23. The mandatory analysis comparing the percent of minorities and women in the community in each job category with the percent employed by a government contractor is known as:
a. an underutilization analysis
b. a workforce analysis
c. a contractor analysis
d. a government contractor analysis
e. an affirmative action analysis
Q24. Individual states:
a. may not have civil rights acts that apply to employers exempt from Title VII
b. may have civil rights acts that apply to employers exempt from Title VII
c. may not have civil rights acts that protect additional classes of employees not covered by Title VII
d. may exempt employers from any Title VII regulation
Q25. When employment practices can be shown to discriminate against some employees:
a. the burden is on the courts to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
b. the burden is on the employees to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
c. the burden is on the employer to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
d. there is no defense for a business
Q1. A(n) _______________ is an artificial person, or legal entity, created under state law.
a. corporation
b. limited partnership
c. legal partnership
d. sole proprietorship
e. business
Q2. Under traditional common law rules, if you wanted to sue a partnership you had to:
a. sue each partner individually
b. sue the partnership as a group
c. sue the state on behalf of the partnership
d. have the state sue the partnership
e. wait until the partnership was incorporated to sue
Q3. A certification of incorporation from the government:
a. gives a business monopoly privileges
b. is necessary for a corporation to be recognized legally
c. must be obtained by all limited partnerships
d. is necessary or a corporation to be recognized legally and must be obtained by all limited partnerships
Q4. State regulation of franchises is typically conducted by:
a. a state attorney general
b. county prosecutors
c. state chartering offices
d. state examining boards
e. state FTCs
Q5. The New York Stock Exchange is an example of a stock exchange where:
a. the stock of sole proprietorships can be traded
b. the stock of public corporations can be traded
c. the stock of private corporations can be traded
d. the stock of public corporations cannot be traded
e. the stock of public corporations can be sold but not bought
Q6. Double taxation on profits is:
a. a disadvantage to the corporate form of organization
b. an advantage to the corporate form of organization
c. an incentive for governments to lower sales taxes for corporations
d. a driving force behind the trend of businesses moving overseas
e. a clever economic strategy
Q7. When a court holds shareholders personally liable for corporate debts it is said to be:
a. piercing the corporate veil
b. opening the corporate veil
c. closing the corporate veil
d. tearing the corporate veil
e. cutting the corporate veil
Q8. A potential drawback of sole proprietorships and partnerships is that the parties involved have:
a. limited financial liability
b. only corporate liability
c. unlimited liability
d. partial protection from creditors for business debts
e. only corporate liability and partial protection from creditors for business debts
Q9. The rules that regulate and govern the internal operations of a corporation are known as:
a. the certificate of incorporation
b. the bond
c. the bylaws
d. statutes of business
e. the corporate constitution
Q10. Featherbedding, the illegal use of union funds for the personal benefit of union leaders, is outlawed by the Landrum-Griffin Act.
a. true
b. false
Q11. Before the Norris-La Guardia Act, federal courts:
a. could not interfere in labor-management relations
b. showed no interest in labor-management relations
c. could issue injunctions to stop labor strikes
d. refused to interfere in labor-management disputes due to the Interstate Commerce Clause
Q12. An anti-raiding covenant is one in which:
a. one party promises not to sue another in case of an injury caused by a tort or some other event
b. an employee agrees not to leave and go into competition against the employer or go to work for a competitor for a certain time
c. an employee agrees not to recruit fellow employees for another company when they leave their current place of employment
d. an employee agrees not to use illegal substances
Q13. The powers of the National Labor Relations Board include:
a. monitoring of unfair labor practices
b. representing the NLRB in court
c. determining if employees want to be represented by a union
d. monitoring of unfair labor practices and determining if employees want to be represented by a union
e. monitoring of unfair labor practices and determining if employees want to be represented by a union and representing the NLRB in court
Q14. Violations of OSHA regulations are civil, there are no criminal penalties.
a. true
b. false
Q15. The Family and Medical Leave Act applies to all:
a. private employers of 50 or more persons
b. employees after 30 days of employment
c. government units
d. private employers of 50 or more persons and government units
e. private employers of 50 or more persons and government units and employees after 30 days of employment
Q16. A public policy exception to employment at-will gives the employee the right to sue for wrongful discharge.
a. true
b. false
Q17. Lockouts are legal as long as:
a. there is no evidence of bad intent
b. there is evidence of non-violent attempts to break a union
c. there is physical force involved
d. there is not any physical force involved
Q18. Forcing retirement because of age is an example of:
a. sex discrimination
b. age discrimination
c. elderly discrimination
d. geriatric discrimination
e. quantitative discrimination
Q19. If an employer uses a decision rule that causes discrimination in some aspect of employment based on protected class status, but the discrimination was unintentional, the discrimination is called:
a. disparate treatment, but is legal so long as not intentional
b. disparate treatment, which is illegal
c. disparate impact, but is legal so long as not intentional
d. disparate impact, which is illegal
e. differential impact, but is legal so long as not intentional
Q20. An employer may legally provide differential treatment to its employees based on:
a. merit
b. seniority
c. business necessity
d. merit or seniority only
e. merit, seniority or business necessity
Q21. Which of the following are examples of illegal discrimination under the Pregnancy Discrimination Act?
a. not providing health insurance to employees
b. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café
c. denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition
d. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café and denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition
e. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café and denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition and not providing health insurance to employees
Q22. The Equal Pay Act allows differences in wages between men and women employees if the differences are due to:
a. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced
b. a merit system
c. a seniority system
d. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced or a merit system
e. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced or a merit system or a seniority system
Q23. The mandatory analysis comparing the percent of minorities and women in the community in each job category with the percent employed by a government contractor is known as:
a. an underutilization analysis
b. a workforce analysis
c. a contractor analysis
d. a government contractor analysis
e. an affirmative action analysis
Q24. Individual states:
a. may not have civil rights acts that apply to employers exempt from Title VII
b. may have civil rights acts that apply to employers exempt from Title VII
c. may not have civil rights acts that protect additional classes of employees not covered by Title VII
d. may exempt employers from any Title VII regulation
Q25. When employment practices can be shown to discriminate against some employees:
a. the burden is on the courts to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
b. the burden is on the employees to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
c. the burden is on the employer to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
d. there is no defense for a business
Q1. A(n) _______________ is an artificial person, or legal entity, created under state law.
a. corporation
b. limited partnership
c. legal partnership
d. sole proprietorship
e. business
Q2. Under traditional common law rules, if you wanted to sue a partnership you had to:
a. sue each partner individually
b. sue the partnership as a group
c. sue the state on behalf of the partnership
d. have the state sue the partnership
e. wait until the partnership was incorporated to sue
Q3. A certification of incorporation from the government:
a. gives a business monopoly privileges
b. is necessary for a corporation to be recognized legally
c. must be obtained by all limited partnerships
d. is necessary or a corporation to be recognized legally and must be obtained by all limited partnerships
Q4. State regulation of franchises is typically conducted by:
a. a state attorney general
b. county prosecutors
c. state chartering offices
d. state examining boards
e. state FTCs
Q5. The New York Stock Exchange is an example of a stock exchange where:
a. the stock of sole proprietorships can be traded
b. the stock of public corporations can be traded
c. the stock of private corporations can be traded
d. the stock of public corporations cannot be traded
e. the stock of public corporations can be sold but not bought
Q6. Double taxation on profits is:
a. a disadvantage to the corporate form of organization
b. an advantage to the corporate form of organization
c. an incentive for governments to lower sales taxes for corporations
d. a driving force behind the trend of businesses moving overseas
e. a clever economic strategy
Q7. When a court holds shareholders personally liable for corporate debts it is said to be:
a. piercing the corporate veil
b. opening the corporate veil
c. closing the corporate veil
d. tearing the corporate veil
e. cutting the corporate veil
Q8. A potential drawback of sole proprietorships and partnerships is that the parties involved have:
a. limited financial liability
b. only corporate liability
c. unlimited liability
d. partial protection from creditors for business debts
e. only corporate liability and partial protection from creditors for business debts
Q9. The rules that regulate and govern the internal operations of a corporation are known as:
a. the certificate of incorporation
b. the bond
c. the bylaws
d. statutes of business
e. the corporate constitution
Q10. Featherbedding, the illegal use of union funds for the personal benefit of union leaders, is outlawed by the Landrum-Griffin Act.
a. true
b. false
Q11. Before the Norris-La Guardia Act, federal courts:
a. could not interfere in labor-management relations
b. showed no interest in labor-management relations
c. could issue injunctions to stop labor strikes
d. refused to interfere in labor-management disputes due to the Interstate Commerce Clause
Q12. An anti-raiding covenant is one in which:
a. one party promises not to sue another in case of an injury caused by a tort or some other event
b. an employee agrees not to leave and go into competition against the employer or go to work for a competitor for a certain time
c. an employee agrees not to recruit fellow employees for another company when they leave their current place of employment
d. an employee agrees not to use illegal substances
Q13. The powers of the National Labor Relations Board include:
a. monitoring of unfair labor practices
b. representing the NLRB in court
c. determining if employees want to be represented by a union
d. monitoring of unfair labor practices and determining if employees want to be represented by a union
e. monitoring of unfair labor practices and determining if employees want to be represented by a union and representing the NLRB in court
Q14. Violations of OSHA regulations are civil, there are no criminal penalties.
a. true
b. false
Q15. The Family and Medical Leave Act applies to all:
a. private employers of 50 or more persons
b. employees after 30 days of employment
c. government units
d. private employers of 50 or more persons and government units
e. private employers of 50 or more persons and government units and employees after 30 days of employment
Q16. A public policy exception to employment at-will gives the employee the right to sue for wrongful discharge.
a. true
b. false
Q17. Lockouts are legal as long as:
a. there is no evidence of bad intent
b. there is evidence of non-violent attempts to break a union
c. there is physical force involved
d. there is not any physical force involved
Q18. Forcing retirement because of age is an example of:
a. sex discrimination
b. age discrimination
c. elderly discrimination
d. geriatric discrimination
e. quantitative discrimination
Q19. If an employer uses a decision rule that causes discrimination in some aspect of employment based on protected class status, but the discrimination was unintentional, the discrimination is called:
a. disparate treatment, but is legal so long as not intentional
b. disparate treatment, which is illegal
c. disparate impact, but is legal so long as not intentional
d. disparate impact, which is illegal
e. differential impact, but is legal so long as not intentional
Q20. An employer may legally provide differential treatment to its employees based on:
a. merit
b. seniority
c. business necessity
d. merit or seniority only
e. merit, seniority or business necessity
Q21. Which of the following are examples of illegal discrimination under the Pregnancy Discrimination Act?
a. not providing health insurance to employees
b. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café
c. denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition
d. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café and denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition
e. suspending a pregnant waitress because she might not be appealing to the diners at a café and denying a pregnant reporter an assignment to a dangerous country because of her condition and not providing health insurance to employees
Q22. The Equal Pay Act allows differences in wages between men and women employees if the differences are due to:
a. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced
b. a merit system
c. a seniority system
d. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced or a merit system
e. a system that measures earnings by quantity produced or a merit system or a seniority system
Q23. The mandatory analysis comparing the percent of minorities and women in the community in each job category with the percent employed by a government contractor is known as:
a. an underutilization analysis
b. a workforce analysis
c. a contractor analysis
d. a government contractor analysis
e. an affirmative action analysis
Q24. Individual states:
a. may not have civil rights acts that apply to employers exempt from Title VII
b. may have civil rights acts that apply to employers exempt from Title VII
c. may not have civil rights acts that protect additional classes of employees not covered by Title VII
d. may exempt employers from any Title VII regulation
Q25. When employment practices can be shown to discriminate against some employees:
a. the burden is on the courts to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
b. the burden is on the employees to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
c. the burden is on the employer to prove that the challenged practices are justified as a business necessity and are job related
d. there is no defense for a business
Explanation / Answer
Q1 - Corproation
Q2 - Sue the partnership as a group
Q3 - is necessary for a corporation to be recognized legally
Q4 - State FTCs
Q5 - the stock of public corporations can be traded
Q6: a disadvantage to the corporate form of organization
Q7: piercing the corporate veil
Q8: unlimited liability
Q9: The bylaws
Q10: False
Q11: could issue injunctions to stop labor strikes
Q12: an employee agrees not to leave and go into competition against the employer or go to work for a competitor for a certain time
Q13:monitoring of unfair labor practices and determining if employees want to be represented by a union
Q14: False
Q15: private employers of 50 or more persons and government units
Q16: True
Q17: there is not any physical force involved
Q18: geriatric discrimination
Q19:
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