Given the following 2 sets of data (same as before, shown again here): Group 1:

Question

Given the following 2 sets of data (same as before, shown again here): Group 1: (23, 41, 16, 75, 48, 63, 94, 50, 47, 35); Group 2: (24, 36, 39, 83, 52, 37, 64, 5, 30, 12)

Again, say the data still came from subjects' scores on a math test, after Group 1 was given coffee and Group 2 was given beer, and the same subjects were used in both conditions (Subject 1 scored 23 with coffee, 24 with beer; Subject 2 scored 41 with coffee, 36 with beer, etc.).

What proportion of the variance in each subject's scores after beer can be explained by their scores after coffee? Run a simple linear regression to find out (Hint: 'Analyze->Regression', see ch. 7)

  Approximately 54%

  Approximately 61%

  Approximately 6.1%

Approximately 37%

  Approximately 54%

  Approximately 61%

  Approximately 6.1%

Approximately 37%

Explanation / Answer

Model Summary

S R-sq R-sq(adj) R-sq(pred)
19.6670 37.20% 29.35% 4.63%

Coefficients

Term Coef SE Coef T-Value P-Value VIF
Constant 8.2 15.1 0.54 0.603
coffee 0.610 0.280 2.18 0.061 1.00

Regression Equation

beer = 8.2 + 0.610 coffee

Proportion of the variance in each subjects scores after beaar can be explained by their scores after coffee is approximatey 37%.

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