There is an unlimited pile of balls. They are numbered by 1, 2, 3, . . .. Two pl

Question

There is an unlimited pile of balls. They are numbered by 1, 2, 3, . . .. Two players A and B randomly select one ball each and check their number. The winner is the player who picked the lowest numbered ball. Let us consider the chances of winning of player A. Assume that player A picked a ball with number k. As there is a finite number of balls numbered lower than k and unlimited number of balls with larger numbers, then we can conclude that the chance of player A winning is much more likely than loosing. However, the same argument works for the player B. Thus, both players have advantage over the other player. How is it possible?

Explanation / Answer

Basically Both players dont have advantage but only player who plays first have the advantage .. because there are unlimited numbers above the number he choose .so 1st player can be anyone which is not fixed. the process determining who is to chose number first That actually determinis who is going to have advantage

Howeevre in reality such game is not pssible because there would not be infine number of balls availbale but finite number . thus in that case there is no advanage to either first or 2nd player. it all depends on whad number 1st player chooses.

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