There are obvious analogs (pardon the pun) between Boolean algebra and algebra.

Question

There are obvious analogs (pardon the pun) between Boolean algebra and algebra. They have similar laws, operators and properties. I can't figure out why Karnaugh Maps and sum of products, which are used to derive a Boolean function from a truth table, doesn't have an equivalent in algebra. Perhaps it does, but I haven't seen it.

My only explanation is that if it were possible, you could theoretically find a function for any arbitrary series of numbers (0, 2, 4, 6, 8 f(n)=2n). Thus, you could solve a ton of very difficult problems. I'm not necessarily looking for a formal proof but an explanation.

Right now, I am having fleeting ideas that it has something to do with infinite outputs and inputs, something to do with place values, or true or false equivalents in algebra. There's something here that's difficult to put my finger on.

Explanation / Answer

There are two possible ways to define a non-boolean algebra.

Stick with F2={0,1} but choose base operations other than {?,?,

Related Questions

Navigate

• Browse (All)
• Browse T
• Subjects

Integrity-first tutoring: explanations and feedback only — we do not complete graded work. Learn more.