The sex of consecutive children is thought to be independent in humans. That is,
ID: 3357315 • Letter: T
Question
The sex of consecutive children is thought to be independent in humans. That is, whether a couple's first child is a boy should have no bearing on whether the second child is a boy. In the absence of any complications, the number of boys in 2-child families should match a binomial distribution with n equal to 2 and p equal to the probability of having a male child. Consider the following data from a real, random sample of 2444 families with 2 children.
Based on this sample of data, what is the probability of having a male child?
The answer key states that the answer is 0.5106, but I'm having trouble getting the answer. A detailed explanation would be very helpful!
Number of boys 0 Observed number of families 530 1332 582 2444 TotalExplanation / Answer
here total number of children =2444*2 =4888
total number of male child =0*530+1*1332+2*582=2496
therefore probability of having a male child =2496/4888=0.5106
please reply for any clarification
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