A friend of yours is trying to value the equity of a company and, knowing that y
ID: 2627854 • Letter: A
Question
A friend of yours is trying to value the equity of a company and, knowing that you have read this book, has asked for your help. So far she has tried to use the FCFE approach. She estimated the cash flows to equity to be as follows: Sales $800.0 -CGS -450.0 -Depreciation -80.0 -Interest -24.0 Earnings before taxes (EBT) 246.0 -Taxes (0.35 x EBT) -86.1 = Cash Flow to Equity $159.9 She also computed the cost of equity using CAPM as follows: kE = kF + E(Risk premium) = 0.06 + (1.25 x 0.084) = 0.165, or 16.5% where the beta is estimated for a comparable publicly traded company. Using this cost of equity, she estimates the discount rate as WACC = xDebtkDebt pretax(1 - t) + xcskcs = [0.20 x 0.06 x (1-0.35)]+(0.80 x 0.165) = 0.14, or 14% Based on this analysis, she concludes that the value of equity is $159.9 million/0.14 = $1,142 million.
Assuming that the numbers used in this analysis are all correct, what advice would you give your friend regarding her analysis?
Explanation / Answer
Sales $800.0
-CGS -450.0
-Depreciation -80.0
-Interest -24.0
Earnings before taxes (EBT) 246.0
-Taxes (0.35 x EBT) -86.1
= Cash Flow to Equity $159.9
She also computed the cost of equity using CAPM as follows:
kE = kF + bE(Risk premium) = 0.06 + (1.25 x 0.084) = 0.165, or 16.5%
where the beta is estimated for a comparable publicly traded company. Using this cost of equity, she estimates the discount rate as
WACC = xDebtkDebt pretax(1 - t) + xcskcs
Based on this analysis, she concludes that the value of equity is $159.9 million/0.14 = $1,142 million.
here the analysis is absolutely correct
and used risk free rate as cost of debt
although it is right sometimes , market interest rate is quite different from risk free rate
so my adivice is as long as they is not much difference, it analysis is sound and perfect
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