I\'m not quite understanding this. Does this have to do with metabolic pathways

Question

I'm not quite understanding this. Does this have to do with metabolic pathways of glycolysis/gluconeogenesis? What conclusions can be made from the western blot given and the information presented?

I perform a Western blot on liver cells from wildtype and mutant animals using an antibody that recognizes PFK2. My data from animals given injections of glucagon and insulin are shown. I also know that the mutation is in the enzyme Protein Phosphatase 1 (PP1, which PPU normally, when activated by insulin signaling is responsible for dephosphorylating a number PF2 of enzymes and changing their activity) +Glucagon PFK2-PO PFK2- +Insulin

Explanation / Answer

1. Insulin is secreted in response to high blood glucose levels

2. Insulin activates PP1.

3. PP1 dephosphorylates PFK2

4. PFK2 is active only in the unphsophorylated state.

So, glycolysis is stimulated by insulin in the presence of elevated glucose levels.

Since the mutant has inactive PP1, PFK is constitutively active in those cells.

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