I have attached a link to a problem solved by chegg. http://www.chegg.com/homewo

Question

I have attached a link to a problem solved by chegg. http://www.chegg.com/homework-help/engineering-mechanics-statics-11th-edition-chapter-10-problem-29p-solution-9780132215008 Can someone please explain to me what is going on in steps 4 and 5 of this problem. I realize they are very similar so likely explaination of one will be enough for me to solve the other. In step 4, why is the entire formula multiplied by 4? Also, why is the bracketed portion [275/2 -28] squared? Why is 1.36*10^3 multiplied by that bracketed portion when 1.32*10^6 isnt? Can someone please break this down step by step explaining where everything is coming from? I am completely lost with this.

Explanation / Answer

for a rod moment ofintertia is ML^/12 about its centre of mass now in step 4 , effective distance from centre of mass is (275/2 - 28) and as in the formula there is L^2 term , it is squared. then it is multipled by four because , from the figure we can see that moment of intertial is calculated for each "L" shaped bend , and there are four such bends 1.32*10^6 is the inertia about the given axis and whereas 1.36*10^3 is area of the bend hence to make the units mm^4 , it should be muiltiplied by L^2

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