Multiple Choice: Choose the correct letter. There is only one correct answer. 1.
ID: 181257 • Letter: M
Question
Multiple Choice: Choose the correct letter. There is only one correct answer.
1. One positive use of viruses is their function as
a. infectious particles. c. cloning vectors.
b. pandemic initiators. d. marine predators.
2. Which of the following facts supports the argument that viruses are living?
a. Viruses lack metabolism for energy and biosynthesis.
b. Viruses are capable of being crystallized.
c. Some living pathogenic bacteria contain degenerate genomes and rely significantly on a
host.
d. Viruses cannot replicate without a host.
3. Which of the following is NOT a possible effect of viral replication in the host cell?
a. death of the cell c. debilitation of the cell
b. differentiation of the cell d. alteration of the genome of the cell
4. ________ is an example of a virus that causes major economic losses in the agriculture industry.
a. Tobacco mosaic virus c. HIV
b. Measles virus d. Influenza
5. West Nile virus is capable of infecting many different organisms (humans, birds, raccoons, and so on).
Based on this information, which of the following statements correctly describes West Nile virus?
a. West Nile virus has a narrow host range.
b. West Nile virus has a broad host range.
c. West Nile virus has a narrow tissue tropism.
d. West Nile virus is capable of fecal-oral transmission.
6. How is HPV able to keep its genome so small?
a. overlapping reading frames c. antigenic shift
b. oncogenic transformation d. HPV does not have a small genome.
7. Replication of HPV is activated when
a. the DNA is uncoated. c. integrating into the host genome.
b. infecting basal cells. d. keratinocytes differentiate.
8. What type of HPV causes cancer?
a. all types of HPV c. some types of latent HPV
b. no types of HPV d. all types of actively replicating HPV
9. Why would a virus have evolved to cause cancer in a host cell?
a. to kill the host cell
b. to produce more cells for the virus to infect
c. to allow for increased mutagenesis of the virus
d. Viruses are not capable of causing cancer in a host cell.
10. What type of HPV can be eliminated from the body by the host immune system?
a. oncogenic HPV c. all HPV
b. nononcogenic HPV d. no HPV
11. Segmented influenza RNA genomes are capable of
a. reverse transcription. c. reassortment.
b. cell fusion. d. proviral transposition.
12. Which of the following statements regarding the influenza virus is FALSE?
a. The genome of influenza is very tiny to allow the generation of as many virions as
possible.
b. The influenza genome maximizes gene reassortment.
c. The genome of influenza is well designed for evasion of the immune system.
d. The influenza genome allows for large quantities of virions to be created for continued
infection.
13. Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by Tamiflu?
a. the coating of the capsid envelope
b. the assembly of the capsid
c. the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding
d. the packaging of viral genome segments and exit from the nucleus
14. Why must influenza have highly efficient host-to-host transmission?
a. because of its rapid infection c. because of genetic reassortment
b. because of its slow infection d. because of latent infection
15. What is the cure for infection with HIV?
a. vaccine c. antiviral drugs
b. radiation d. There is no cure for HIV.
16. A small subset of the human population does not express the CD4 and CCR5 receptors. To what virus are these individuals naturally immune?
a. HIV c. influenza
b. HPV d. hepatitis
17. Which of the following features of HIV is a big reason as to why thus far it cannot be cured?
a. It is a retrovirus. c. It contains integrase.
b. It contains a viral envelope d. It contains a protease.
18. Which of the following viruses is capable of causing a syncytium?
a. hepatitis c. HPV
b. influenza d. HIV
COMPLETION: Fill in the blank with the correct word.
19. Human papillomavirus contains a ________ genome.
20. Influenza contains a ________ genome.
21. A retrovirus that causes infections progressing slowly over many years is a ________.
Chapter 13
MULTIPLE CHOICE: : Choose the correct letter. There is only one correct answer.
23. In which of the following mechanisms of microbial control might some pathogens still survive?
a. sanitization c. disinfection
b. antisepsis d. sterilization
24. Which of the following organisms is NOT killed by a germicidal agent?
a. bacteria c. fungi
b. virus d. endospore
25. Hannibal Lecter, an infamous serial killer, is attempting to use H2O2 to remove pesky blood stains of his latest victim from his 100% cashmere scarf and for disinfection purposes. Why is it taking him so long to disinfect his scarf?
a. H2O2 is not a good disinfection agent.
b. This type of disinfection procedure is best completed at colder temperatures.
c. Blood is an example of organic load that can inhibit the process of disinfection.
d. The organisms on his scarf are resistant to H2O2.
26. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of low temperatures in microbiology?
a. inhibit microbial growth c. kill microorganisms
b. stop microbial metabolism d. preserve microorganisms
27. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the efficacy of a disinfectant?
a. the barometric pressure
b. the presence of blood
c. the presence of endospore-forming bacteria
d. the corrosiveness of the disinfectant
28. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of biofilms that makes it resistant to disinfectants?
a. presence of an extracellular matrix
b. stress-induced physiology of surface cells
c. stress-induced physiology of cells deep in the biofilm
d. metabolic collaboration between multiple species
29. Drug sensitivity occurs when a(n)
a. drug is broken down by a pathogenic organism.
b. organism is inhibited by a drug.
c. individual develops an allergic reaction to a drug he or she is taking.
d. drug that is used to inhibit the growth of an organism is no longer capable.
30. The term antibiotic is usually reserved for drugs that target
a. viruses. c. fungi.
b. bacteria. d. protozoa.
31. The cotreatment of septic Enterococcus infections with vancomycin and an aminoglycoside is an example of antibiotic
a. synergism. c. sensitivity.
b. antagonism. d. resistance.
32. Administering antibiotics before knowing the cause of the infection is specifically known as
a. chemotherapy. c. prophylactic therapy.
b. empirical therapy. d. persistence therapy.
33. Which of the following actions of an individual will NOT prevent the need for antibiotics?
a. frequent hand washing
b. aromatherapy
c. avoiding the use of antibiotics for viral infections
d. vaccinations
34. Protease inhibitors are a common antiviral drug targeting
a. HPV. c. hepatitis C.
b. HIV. d. influenza.
35. Highly active antiretroviral therapy is used to treat
a. HPV. c. hepatitis C.
b. HIV. d. influenza.
36. CASE HISTORY
Three-year-old Molly was brought to the emergency department crying. She had a stiff neck and high fever (40 C, or 104 F). Gram stain of her cerebrospinal fluid revealed Gram-positive cocci, generally in pairs. The attending physician diagnosed Molly with meningitis and immediately prescribed intravenous ampicillin. Unfortunately, the child’s condition worsened, so antibiotic treatment was changed to a third-generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone). Molly began to improve within hours and was released after two days. A report from the clinical microbiology laboratory two days later identified the organism as Streptococcus pneumoniae. The report also included antibiotic susceptibility results, which revealed that this strain of S. pneumoniae was resistant to ampicillin but remained susceptible to cephalosporin.
The first antibiotic used to treat Molly, ampicillin, has activity against both Gram-negative and
Gram-positive bacteria; however, the bacterium that made Molly ill was resistant to this agent. At the time the antibiotic was prescribed, neither the type of agent nor its resistances were known. Based on this information, which of the following is true?
a. Ampicillin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic.
b. Gram-positive bacteria are resistant to ampicillin, so it should be used only for
Gram-negative infections.
c. Molly’s illness should have been treated with a narrow-spectrum antibiotic.
d. Molly’s infection is resistant to a broad variety of antibiotics.
COMPLETION: Fill in the blank with the correct word.
________ is the process by which all living cells, spores, and viruses are destroyed on an object.
. ________ is the process of heating foods to a moderately high temperature long enough to kill most heat-resistant, non-spore-forming pathogens known.
The presence of ________ in the bacterial cell wall is one of the mechanisms of antibiotic selective toxicity.
Chapter 26, and Nosocomial/Hospital Acquired Infection Notes
MULTIPLE CHOICE: : Choose the correct letter. There is only one correct answer.
44.Charlotte touches a doorknob after an individual with MRSA touched the doorknob. Immediately after touching the knob, Charlotte scratches her leg and transmits some MRSA cells into a small wound.The doorknob is functioning as a(n)
a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission.
b. reservoir. d. host.
44.A man infected with a viral respiratory infection sneezes and releases tiny droplets containing viral particles. Two minutes later, a woman breathes in some of these tiny droplets and becomes infected by the same viral infection. The movement of this virus from one individual to another is best described as the
a. etiologic agent. c. mode of transmission.
b. reservoir. d. host.
45. Although sporadic outbreaks of measles occur in the United States, the disease is considered
nonendemic. What differentiates measles from endemic diseases, such as chickenpox?
a. Endemic diseases exhibit higher numbers of cases than a sporadic outbreak.
b. Diseases that are not endemic lack a reservoir in the area.
c. Endemic diseases do not exhibit sporadic outbreaks.
d. Diseases that are not endemic remain in reservoirs without infecting humans.
46. Which of the following would indicate efforts to control a disease are working?
a. The disease becomes endemic.
b. The disease prevalence increases.
c. The disease incidence decreases.
d. Outbreaks of the disease only occur every other year.
47. Which of the following statements describes one of the three steps of surveillance used for infectious diseases?
a. Patients with infectious diseases are required to be seen by a physician at the CDC.
b. Physicians are required to submit all patient records electronically to the CDC for
review.
c. Patient charts are reviewed by an infection control practitioner when an infectious
disease is suspected.
d. Incidence data is collected in all cases of bacterial infections within the United States.
48. Which of the following lists correctly identifies nosocomial infections from most common to least common?
a. urinary tract, pneumonia, septicemia
b. pneumonia, urinary tract, surgical wounds
c. septicemia, surgical wounds, diarrhea
d. diarrhea, urinary tract, pneumonia
49. Mary, an elderly woman with an indwelling catheter, is admitted to a local hospital for treatment of pneumonia. Three days after her admission, Mary’s husband receives a call from the hospital. He is informed that Mary has a nosocomial infection. Which of the following statements is true?
a. The nosocomial infection referred to is pneumonia.
b. Mary has most likely developed a urinary tract infection.
c. Of all hospital patients, 25–30% develop nosocomial infections.
d. Mary’s nosocomial infection could have been prevented with improved ventilation.
50. A nurse working in a large hospital harbors MRSA as part of the normal microbiota in his nose. He is most likely the source of a MRSA outbreak if
a. infected patients have all had been cared for by this nurse and the isolates are identical.
b. the patients are all elderly and the isolates of MRSA are not genetically identical.
c. all of the infected patients were seen by the same physician and half of the patients were
cared for by this nurse.
d. all of the infected patients are on the same floor of the hospital and all have a history of
heart problems.
51. Which of the following is NOT an example of aseptic technique?
a. use of antiseptic on skin prior to insertion of an IV line
b. use of latex gloves during the insertion of an indwelling catheter
c. disinfection of doorknobs and other inert surfaces
d. use of trash can liners in all patient rooms
52. An individual case of diphtheria, a notifiable infectious disease, in a patient in Florida is confirmed by laboratory testing. This patient’s physician would be required to
a. send a letter to the WHO in Geneva, Switzerland.
b. contact the CDC in Atlanta, Georgia.
c. treat the patient regardless of health insurance status.
d. quarantine the patient for eight weeks.
53. Fifteen individuals within one province in China are diagnosed with SARS. Epidemiologists will most likely
a. quarantine the entire province immediately.
b. contact the CDC in the United States to see if any cases were reported in the United
States.
c. wait to see if more cases of SARS are reported.
d. try to identify the index case.
54. How does vaccinating wild rodents or poultry influence human health?
a. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry has no effect on human health.
b. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces transmission of zoonotic diseases to
humans.
c. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry reduces the migration of microbes into temperate
regions.
d. Vaccinating wild rodents or poultry increases the emergence of drug-resistant bacteria.
55. Which of the following scenarios would help meet the goal of the One Health Initiative?
a. vaccinating poultry against avian influenza to prevent influenza from being transmitted
to humans
b. taking steps to reduce carbon dioxide emissions to reduce the effects of climate change
c. providing sanitation after flooding events to prevent gastrointestinal infections in humans
d. increasing compliance during antibiotic treatment of tuberculosis patients to prevent
emergence of drug-resistant strains of tuberculosis
56. If humans continue to develop rapid transportation systems into more parts of the world, we should expect to see
a. pandemics tracing the path of the transportation systems.
b. an increase in detection of blood-borne pathogens.
c. a decrease in human encroachment into tropical rain forests.
d. an increase in the spread of transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.
57. How has the AIDS pandemic influenced reemerging diseases?
a. AIDS has increased the number of immunocompromised individuals who are susceptible
to diseases that were previously declining in developed countries.
b. AIDS has led to an increase in the number of disease vectors throughout the world.
c. AIDS has increased the prevalence of protozoal and parasitic infections that were
declining in underdeveloped countries.
d. AIDS has caused evolution to occur in diseases that were close to being eradicated in all
countries.
58. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result of climate change?
a. Insect vectors will migrate from tropical regions to once-temperate regions.
b. Gastrointestinal infections will decrease in tropical regions.
c. Microbes currently found in temperate regions will move to tropical regions.
d. Extreme weather will decrease and diseases will become less seasonal.
59. What features would allow a virus to be used effectively as a bioweapon?
a. a high infectious dose c. person-to-person transmission
b. transmission via an insect vector d. quick pathogen detection systems
Explanation / Answer
1.c. cloning vectors
Viruses like bacteriophages can be used to transmit genetically engineered genes to other organisms.
2.c. Some living pathogenic bacteria contain degenerate genomes and rely significantly on a host
Bacteria like rickettsia completely rely on animals for their energy and survival They are obligate intracellular parasites just like viruses. this fact supports the statement that viruses are living.
3.b. differentiation of the cell.
Viruses cannot differentiate one cell into another form.
4.a. Tobacco mosaic virus
All other options given are medically important pathogens known to cause diseases in humans.
5.b. West Nile virus has a broad host range
6.a. overlapping reading frames
Overlapping reading frame enables a DNA sequence to encode two different proteins and hence genome is small.
7.c. integrating into the host genome.
All othre options are part of the infection cycle. But the replication starts only when the genome is integrated into the host.
8.c. some types of latent HPV
9.b. to produce more cells for the virus to infect.
10.d. no HPV
HPV can evade the host immune system.
11.c. reassortment.
Segemented genome as in Influenza virus is capable of genetic reassortment and is the reason for antigenic shift and drift.
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