Why isn\'t there a \"current\" term in Faraday\'s law, corresponding to Ampère\'
ID: 1348972 • Letter: W
Question
Why isn't there a "current" term in Faraday's law, corresponding to Ampère's law?
Because electric fields start from charges.
Because there are no magnetic monopoles to carry magnetic current.
Because magnetic currents do not create fields.
Because magnetic fields run parallel to currents.
a.Because electric fields start from charges.
b.Because there are no magnetic monopoles to carry magnetic current.
c.Because magnetic currents do not create fields.
d.Because magnetic fields run parallel to currents.
Explanation / Answer
Amperes law is in consistent with the time varying equation of continuty. Maxwell introduces displacement current to the current density term. From the faradays law, Induced emf is due to rate of change in magnetic flux. This is possible by time varying magnetic field . Any current carrying conductor can behaves like a magnetic dipole.
So because there are no magnetic monopoles to carry magnetic current.
b is the corret answer.
Related Questions
drjack9650@gmail.com
Navigate
Integrity-first tutoring: explanations and feedback only — we do not complete graded work. Learn more.